how to classify return of credit from the government

This is our main tax information forum which deals with topics concerning Canadians living and working in the U.S., U.S. citizens contemplating working in Canada, and all aspects of Canadian and U.S. income tax and related adminstrative issues.

Moderator: Mark T Serbinski CA CPA

Post Reply
anon
Posts: 2
Joined: Mon Mar 24, 2008 2:59 am

how to classify return of credit from the government

Post by anon »

Our company in Canada received a cheque from CRA for unused credit on the statement of account for current source deductions. The credit is due to excessive remittance from a previous year. This credit was not included on the balance sheet before. How should it be accounted for on the income statement (if applicable) and balance sheet? This shouldn't be considered a taxable income, presumably.

On the balance sheet, because cash is up, assets are up, so either liability or equity has to be increased. How should this be done?

For reference, here are schedule 100 and 125:
http://www.cra-arc.gc.ca/E/pbg/tf/t2sch ... 00-06e.pdf
http://www.cra-arc.gc.ca/E/pbg/tf/t2sch ... 25-06e.pdf
Carson
Posts: 183
Joined: Wed Oct 27, 2004 1:00 pm
Location: Toronto

Post by Carson »

Your question is an accounting question, not a US/Canada tax question.

But, how was it accounted for in the first place? It must have gone through the bank account. What was the other side of the entry? You must reverse the related entry.
anon
Posts: 2
Joined: Mon Mar 24, 2008 2:59 am

Post by anon »

Thank you for the reply. Mm, I only have the records since 2005. The credit first appeared on a statement of account in 2006 when CRA sent this notice: "We have transferred a credit of $x to your account. Please reduce your next remittance accordingly. The credit $x was a result of a T4 slip being amended for the 2002 tax year, and the credit that resulted was then transferred to 2005."

I just assumed it means excessive remittance from 2002 but am not sure what the amendment was exactly. The credit wasn't used up because the company has had no tax payable. The credit was returned in 2007 by request.

Based on this can we imply what the 2002 entry should have been in order to reverse it? If not is there a safe way to handle this, say decrease the wages expensed, or add it to revenue?
Carson
Posts: 183
Joined: Wed Oct 27, 2004 1:00 pm
Location: Toronto

Post by Carson »

Well, to be most conservative, I agree that you should decrease current year wage expense.
Post Reply