Serbinski Accounting Firms

I'm sorry, I pasted the wrong link. I meant this thread: http://forums.serbinski.com/viewtopic.php?p=13352
where you say "Note that your pro forma cannot use the standard deduction, you must itemize. " and then repeat later with "No. You must itemize on the fake 1040. this is clear in the technical ...

Yes I did file 8833, just like I did last year with no problems. And there is no AMT in my 1040. Not even close.
I wonder if this can easily be clarified by phone with them.... I think I'd better try argumenting in writing.

Thanks, nelsona!

Hi!

I filed my 1040NR with the article XXV 1040 pro forma this year and just got a letter from IRS reassessing my taxes and applying AMT to my 1040NR, which resulted in taxes even higher than they would be if I filed 1040NR directly, effectively eliminating all my deductions (spouse and children ...

By the way nelsona, browsing the forum, I saw you saying something different in 2009 (regarding standard exemption)... did anything change since then?
This is the thread: http://forums.serbinski.com/viewtopic.php?p=9407

[quote="nelsona"]I don't think it works that way. this implies that only 1/10th of your family world income is reported on 1040NR.

Is that the case?[/quote]

No! Actually, all of my income comes from my job in the US and my wife has no income, so 100% of it goes on form 1040nr. You lose a lot ...

I get it now. the IRS used a very convoluted way to explain it.
Too bad that, because it will also alter the 1040NR/1040 income ratio, the impact on the tax payable is drastically reduced... for every $1,000 saved on the pro forma 1040, you'll get about $100 on the 1040nr.

Thanks, nelsona!

I didn't think I could use the standard deduction on the pro-forma 1040 because I read this document: http://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-trty/canatech.pdf

On page 48, it says: "The formula limits the United States tax with respect to wage income to that portion of the total U.S. tax that would be payable ...

Hi,

I am having some trouble understanding how ISOs would be taxed (if so) in Canada.
Starting with a simple situation:
Canadian resident, H1B holder who commutes to the US to work. Let's say this person was granted ISOs (incentive stock options), exercised them and sold them following all the U.S ...

I had them notarized by a US public notary, since I commute to the US daily anyways.

The 2010 return was already filed with the W-7s for the first ITIN application. All 3 ITINs were rejected and then they processed the return without the exemptions. I even got a (much smaller) refund. Now I'll have to amend it to get the rest... when I am done with the last ITIN.

Sorry for ressurecting such an old topic... but I am (3 years later!) going through the very same problem! Let me rant a bit.
It is absolutely insane that NOBODY can give you a straight answer like "your application was rejected because of *THIS*".
Every attendant gives you a different response ...

But filing a 1040NR with a pro forma 1040 for MFJ rates won't give me the standard deduction, I will have to itemize, right?
It is definitely worth and I will do it, but even then, there is still room to lower my US tax in about $1600 until it is the same as Cdn tax... that is why I am trying to ...

Oh yeah, that one I had already learned about.
So there is no way to get the standard deduction...
Thanks!

Thanks again, nelsona... this forum won't be the same without you, if you decide to stop participation.
I couldn't find your detailed explanation. Will look a little bit further, though since I am not a Canadian CITIZEN, only resident, maybe article XXV(2) doesn't even apply to my case :(

I couldn't find the answer to a rather simple question...
As a married resident of Canada, can I claim the standard deduction by treaty?